Urinary  incon*nence   USMLE  prep  #2   10.3.2016   Klára  Valešová  (394587@mail.muni.cz)     Šimon  Hajda  (395098@mail.muni.cz)   What  is  the  defini*on?   •  involuntary  leakage  of  urine   What  are  the  risk  factors?   •  age:  diminished  size  of  bladder,  postmenopausal   genitourinary  atrophy   •  recurrent  urinary  tract  infec*ons   •  DM,  CHF   •  mul*parity,  history  of  prolonged  labor   •  pelvic  floor  dysfunc*on  in  women,  BPH,  and  prostate   cancer  in  in  men   What  is  the  innerva*on  of  bladder?   •  Relaxa*on  –  β2                                                        Contrac*on  –  M3   •  Sphincter  contrac*on  –  α1                        Sphincter  relaxa*on  –  M3            Sympathe)c  effect                  Parasympathe)c  effect   Types  of  urinary  incon*nence   1.  Urge  incon*nence   2.  Stress  incon*nence   3.  Overflow  incon*nence   1.  Urge  incon*nence   •  most  common  in  elderly  pa*ents   •  causes:  idiopathic,  CNS  lesions  (demen*a,  strokes)   •  mechanism:  involuntary  and  uninhibited  detrusor   contrac*ons  -­‐>  loss  of  urine   •  clinical  features:  sudden  urge  to  urinate,  loss  of  large   volumes  of  urine  with  small  postvoid  residual,  and   nocturnal  wejng   •  diagnosis:  urodynamic  study   •  management:  ini*ally  bladder-­‐training  exercises,  if   unsuccessful  an*cholinergics  (oxybu*nin),  and  TCAs   (imipramine)   2.  Stress  incon*nence   •  mostly  in  women  (aler  mul*ple  deliveries  of  children)   •  mechanism:  weakness  of  the  pelvic  floor  allows  bladder   neck  and  urethra  to  descend  with  increased  intra-­‐ abdominal  pressure   •  clinical  features:  involuntary  urine  loss  during  increased   intra-­‐abdominal  pressure  (cough,  laugh,  sneeze,   exercise);  small  postvoid  volume   •  management:  Kegel  exercises  (to  strengthen  pelvic   floor  musculature);  estrogen  replacement  therapy;   surgery     hnp://www.pcdsupport.org.uk/index.php/what_is_pcd/raising_a_family_30_years/ what_is_stress_incon*nence/   3.  Overflow  incon*nence  I   •  common  in  diabe*c  pa*ents  and  pa*ents  with   neurologic  disorders   •  mechanism:  inadequate  bladder  contrac*on  (due  to   impaired  detrusor  contrac*lity)  or  a  bladder  outlet   obstruc*on  -­‐>  urinary  reten*on  and  subsequent   overdisten*on  of  the  bladder.  Bladder  pressure   increases  un*l  it  exceeds  urethral  resistance-­‐>  urine   leakage   •  causes:  neurogenic  bladder  (diabe*c  pa*ents,  lower   motor  neuron  lesions),  medica*ons  (an*cholinergics,  α-­‐ agonists),  obstruc)on  to  urine  flow  (BPH,  prostate   cancer,  urethral  strictures)       3.  Overflow  incon*nence  II   •  clinical  features:    nocturnal  wejng,  frequent  loss  of   small  amount  of  urine;  large  postvoid  residual   •  management:  interminent  self-­‐catheteriza*on  is  the   best  management;  cholinergic  agents  (bethanechol);   α-­‐blockers  (terazosin,  doxazosin)     Pujng  it  all  together  I   Pujng  it  all  together  II   hnp://dilipraja.com/urinary-­‐incon.htm   Literature:   1.  AGABEGI,  Steven  S.  and  AGABEGI,  Elizabeth   D.  Step-­‐up  to  medicine.  Third  edi*on.   Philadelphia:  Lippincon  Williams  and  Wilkins,   c2013.  ISBN  978-­‐1609133603.   2.  VOJVODIC,  Miliana  and  YOUNG,  Ann.   Essen8al  Med  Notes  2014.  Thir*eth  edi*on.   ISBN:  978-­‐1-­‐92736307-­‐2   2.  Ques*ons   Q1:  A  70-­‐year-­‐old  woman  is  evaluated  for  urinary   incon*nence.  She  reports  frequent  urge  to  urinate.   She  also  says,  that  „when  she  needs  to  go  she  has  to   go  immediately“,  because  she  can´t  control  urinary   flow  and  has  problems  with  urinary  leakage.  She   started  using  pads  during  day  and  at  night,  because  her   symptoms  worsened  since  her  last  visit.  Physical   examina*on  is  insignificant,  pelvic  examina*on  reveals   vaginal  atrophy  and  urinanalysis  is  normal.  Which  of   the  following  is  the  most  appropriate  next  step?   (A)  Begin  oral  estrogen  replacement  therapy   (B)  Begin  oxybu*nin   (C)  Begin  bethanechol   (D)  Perform  cystoscopy   (E)    Surgical  management   The  correct  answer  is  (B):  The  pa*ent  presents  with  typical  symptoms  of   urge  incon*nence.  This  type  of  incon*nence  is  typical  in  older,   postmenopausal  woman.  The  underlying  detrusor  instability  or   hyperreflexia  leads  to  involuntary  detrusor  contrac*on  and  involuntary   urine  leakage  accompanied  by  urgency  of  micturi)on.  The  next  step  in   this  case  is  begin  an*cholinergic  treatment  (oxybu*nin,  tolterodin).     The  major  pa*ent  complain  is  incon*nence,  replacement  of  estrogen  (A)   would  not  help  and  put  the  pa*ent  to  the  greater  risk  of  developement  of   neoplasia.   (B)  Bethanechol,  cholinergic  agent,  is  used  in  treatment  of  urinary   overflow  incon*nence.  Bethanechol  would  not  improve  urge   incon*nence.   There  is  no  need  to  perform  cystoscopy  (D),  which  is,  in  this  case,   unnecessary  invasive  procedure.     Surgerical  management  (E)  is  not  indicated  in  urge  urinary  incon*nence   and  would  not  help  pa*ent  relieve  symptoms.     Q2:  A  78-­‐year-­‐old  man  comes  to  the  physician  for  evalua*on  aler   falling  fi  ve  *mes  in  2  months.  An  x-­‐ray  skeletal  survey  reveals  no   fractures,  but  the  pa*ent  admits  to  worsening  urinary  incon*nence   over  the  previous  4  months.  His  wife  states  that  his  memory  and   concentra*on  have  deteriorated  recently.  The  pa*ent’s  vital  signs   are  normal,  and  his  physical  examina*on  is  notable  for  a  wide-­‐ based  gait  with  short  steps.  A  Mini-­‐Mental  State  Examina*on   results  in  a  score  of  26/30.  His  funduscopic  examina*on  is  normal,   and  his  neurologic  examina*on  is  notable  for  slight  bradykinesia   without  tremor.  Laboratory  tests,  including  serum  vitamin  B12,   folate,  and  TSH,  are  normal.  What  is  the  most  likely  e*ology  of  this   pa*ent’s  recent  decline?     (A)  Alzheimer’s  disease     (B)  Hypothyroidism     (C)  Mul*-­‐infarct  demen*a     (D)  Normal  pressure  hydrocephalus     (E)  Parkinson’s  disease   LE,  Tao,  Karen  A  ADLER  a  Seth  K  BECHIS  (eds.).  First  aid  Q&A  for  the  USMLE  Step  1.  2nd  ed.  New  York:  McGraw-­‐Hill  Medical,  c2009.  ISBN  978-­‐0-­‐07-­‐159794-­‐4    The  correct  answer  is  D.  This  pa*ent  has  a  poten*ally  reversible  case  of  demen*a:   normal  pressure  hydrocephalus  (NPH),  with  the  classic  triad  of  incon)nence,  gait   difficulty,  and  mental  decline  (“wet,  wobbly,  and  wacky”).  The  score  of  26/30  on   the  MiniMental  State  Examina*on  indicates  only  that  some  mild  abnormality  is   present.  The  pathophysiology  of  NPH  is  not  well  understood,  but  it  is  thought  that   neurons  are  stretched  secondary  to  ventricular  dila*on  caused  by  excessive   cerebrospinal  fluid  produc*on,  decreased  absorp*on,  or  both.     Answer  A  is  incorrect.  Alzheimer’s  disease  can  present  with  some  of  the  symptoms   in  this  case.  However,  significant  physical  impairment  tends  to  occur  later  in  the   Alzheimer’s  disease  process  and  would  thus  correlate  with  a  much  lower  score  on   the  Mini-­‐Mental  State  Examina*on.  The  *me  course  and  the  rela*vely  rapid   progression  in  symptoms  are  not  consistent  with  this  diagnosis.     Answer  B  is  incorrect.  Hypothyroidism,  another  poten*al  cause  of  reversible   demen)a  in  the  elderly,  should  be  ruled  out  early  in  the  work-­‐up.  This  pa*ent’s   TSH  level  is  normal,  indica*ng  euthyroidism.   Answer  C  is  incorrect.  Mul*-­‐infarct  demen*a  is  the  most  common  cause  of   cogni)ve  decline  with  a  stepwise  drop  in  func*on  in  the  sejng  of  prior   cerebrovascular  disease  and  stroke.  In  this  case,  the  decline  has  been  steadily   progressive  in  a  pa*ent  with  no  history  of  vascular  disease.    Answer  E  is  incorrect.  Parkinson’s  disease  classically  presents  with  bradykinesia,   masklike  facies,  shuffling  gait,  tremor,  and  rigidity.  This  pa*ent  has  mild   bradykinesia  and  no  rigidity  or  tremor,  so  this  diagnosis  is  a  less  likely  possibility.   LE,  Tao,  Karen  A  ADLER  a  Seth  K  BECHIS  (eds.).  First  aid  Q&A  for  the  USMLE  Step  1.  2nd  ed.  New  York:  McGraw-­‐Hill  Medical,  c2009.  ISBN  978-­‐0-­‐07-­‐159794-­‐4   Q3:  A  newborn  infant  is  found  to  have  a   congenital  urethral  abnormality  in  which  the   urethral  meatus  opens  on  the  ventral  side  of  the   penis,  resul*ng  in  difficulty  direc*ng  the  urine   stream  and  ventral  curvature  of  the  penis.  Which   of  the  following  is  the  cause  of  this   malforma*on?     (A) Failure  of  urethral  fold  fusion     (B) Failure  of  urethrorectal  septum  forma*on     (C) Maldevelopment  of  the  urinary  sphincters     (D) Short  urethra     (E) Urethral  stricture   LE,  Tao,  Karen  A  ADLER  a  Seth  K  BECHIS  (eds.).  First  aid  Q&A  for  the  USMLE  Step  1.  2nd  ed.  New  York:  McGraw-­‐Hill  Medical,  c2009.  ISBN  978-­‐0-­‐07-­‐159794-­‐4   The  correct  answer  is  A.  The  malforma*on  described  is   hypospadias,  resul*ng  from  incomplete  union  of  the  urethral   folds.  In  the  male,  the  urethral  folds  form  the  ventral  aspect  of  the   penis.  In  the  female,  the  urethral  folds  develop  into  the  labia   minora.     Answer  B  is  incorrect.  Congenital  failure  of  urethrorectal  septum   forma*on  results  in  an  abnormal  communica*on  between  the   urethra  and  the  rectum.  Clinical  signs  include  feces  in  the  urine.   This  is  not  a  cause  of  hypospadias.     Answer  C  is  incorrect.  In  males,  the  proximal  por*on  of  the  urethra   forms  from  the  urogenital  sinus.  The  distal  urethra  is  formed  by   ectoderm  that  is  canalized  to  form  the  navicular  fossa.  If  the   sphincters  do  not  form  properly,  urethral  incompetence  and   incon)nence  result.     Answer  D  is  incorrect.  A  short  urethra  causes  chordee,  or  poorly   developed  penis  with  ventral  curvature,  without  hypospadias.     Answer  E  is  incorrect.  Urethral  stricture  causes  urethral   obstruc)on  and  is  the  second  most  common  cause  of   incon)nence  in  older  men.  It  is  not  a  cause  of  hypospadias.   LE,  Tao,  Karen  A  ADLER  a  Seth  K  BECHIS  (eds.).  First  aid  Q&A  for  the  USMLE  Step  1.  2nd  ed.  New  York:  McGraw-­‐Hill  Medical,  c2009.  ISBN  978-­‐0-­‐07-­‐159794-­‐4   Q4:  A  74-­‐year-­‐old  man  comes  to  the  physician  complaining   of  increased  urinary  frequency  along  with  difficulty  star*ng   and  stopping  urina*on.  Assuming  a  benign  underlying   cause,  which  of  the  following  is  the  mechanism  of  ac*on  of   a  common  medica*on  used  to  treat  this  condi*on?     (A)  Forma*on  of  superoxide  radicals  that  anack  DNA  bonds     (B)  Gonadotropin-­‐releasing  hormone  analog     (C)  Inhibi*on  of  cyclic  guanosine  monophosphate–specific   phosphodiesterase  type  5     (D)  Inhibi*on  of  cytochrome  P450  enzymes     (E)  Inhibi*on  of  5α-­‐reductase     (F)  Inhibi*on  of  testosterone’s  nega*ve  feedback  on   gonadotropin  secre*on   LE,  Tao,  Karen  A  ADLER  a  Seth  K  BECHIS  (eds.).  First  aid  Q&A  for  the  USMLE  Step  1.  2nd  ed.  New  York:  McGraw-­‐Hill  Medical,  c2009.  ISBN  978-­‐0-­‐07-­‐159794-­‐4   The  correct  answer  is  E.  This  man  has  the  symptoms  of  benign  prosta)c  hypertrophy,  which   include  difficulty  star*ng  and  maintaining  a  urine  stream,  feeling  as  though  the  bladder  is  never   emp*ed,  having  the  urge  to  urinate  again  soon  aler  voiding,  and  pain  on  urina*on  or  dysuria.   Finasteride  is  most  commonly  used  to  treat  this  condi*on.  Finasteride  acts  by  inhibi*ng  the   conversion  of  testosterone  to  dihydrotestosterone  by  inhibi)ng  5α-­‐reductase.  This  leads  to  a   reduc*on  in  the  size  of  the  prostate,  providing  symptoma*c  relief.     Answer  A  is  incorrect.  Bleomycin  acts  by  chela*ng  mechanisms  to  anack  the  phosphodiester   bonds  of  DNA.  It  is  used  to  treat  tes)cular  tumors  and  lymphomas  (especially  Hodgkin’s),  not   benign  prosta*c  hypertrophy.     Answer  B  is  incorrect.  Leuprolide  is  a  gonadotropin-­‐releasing  hormone  analog  that  binds  the   luteinizing  hormone-­‐releasing  hormone  receptor  in  the  pituitary.  This  leads  to  reduced  release   of  luteinizing  hormone.  Leuprolide  is  used  to  treat  metasta)c  carcinoma  of  the  prostate,  not   benign  prosta*c  hypertrophy.     Answer  C  is  incorrect.  Sildenafil  inhibits  cGMP-­‐specific  phosphodiesterase  type  5,  resul*ng  in   increased  concentra*ons  of  cGMP,  which  increases  vasodila*on  leading  to  increased  blood  fl  ow   to  the  corpus  cavernosum.  Sildenafi  l  is  used  primarily  to  treat  erec)le  dysfunc)on.     Answer  D  is  incorrect.  Ketoconazole  is  an  that  acts  by  inhibi*ng  cytochrome  P450  enzymes.  It  is   not  used  in  the  treatment  of  benian*fungal  with  an*androgenic  proper*es  gn  prosta*c   hypertrophy.     Answer  F  is  incorrect.  Flutamide  is  a  potent  androgen  receptor  antagonist.  This  drug  is  used   primarily  in  conjunc*on  with  a  gonadotropin-­‐releasing  hormone  analog  in  the  treatment  of   metasta)c  prostate  cancer.   LE,  Tao,  Karen  A  ADLER  a  Seth  K  BECHIS  (eds.).  First  aid  Q&A  for  the  USMLE  Step  1.  2nd  ed.  New  York:  McGraw-­‐Hill  Medical,  c2009.  ISBN  978-­‐0-­‐07-­‐159794-­‐4   Q5:  A  73-­‐year-­‐old  pa*ent  has  been  hospitalized  for  6  days  due  to   complica*ons  from  surgery.  The  pa*ent  had  a  urinary  catheter  in   place,  which  was  removed  on  the  fourth  hospital  day.  Now  she  is   complaining  of  painful  and  frequent  urina*on  and  has  a  fever  of   38.9°  C  (102°  F).  Urinalysis  results  are  posi*ve  for  nitrites  and   leukocyte  esterase.  A  urine  culture  grows  a  gram-­‐nega*ve  rod  that   produces  a  red  pigment.  Which  of  the  following  organisms  is  the   most  likely  cause  of  this  pa*ent’s  symptoms?     (A)  Candida  albicans     (B)  Escherichia  coli     (C)  Klebsiella  pneumoniae     (D)  Proteus  mirabilis     (E)  Pseudomonas  aeruginosa     (F)  Serra*a  marcescens     (G)  Staphylococcus  saprophy*cus   LE,  Tao,  Karen  A  ADLER  a  Seth  K  BECHIS  (eds.).  First  aid  Q&A  for  the  USMLE  Step  1.  2nd  ed.  New  York:  McGraw-­‐Hill  Medical,  c2009.  ISBN  978-­‐0-­‐07-­‐159794-­‐4   The  correct  answer  is  F.  This  pa*ent  presents  with  symptoms  of  a  UTI,  most  likely  caused  by   prolonged  urethral  catheteriza*on.  Nosocomial  UTI  is  most  olen  associated  with  Escherichia   coli,  Proteus  mirabilis,  Pseudomonas  aeruginosa,  Klebsiella  pneumoniae,  Serra)a  marcescens,   staphylococci,  enterococci,  and  Candida  albicans.  Although  the  pa*ent’s  symptoms  are  not   specific  for  any  of  these  organisms,  the  urine  culture  tells  us  that  (1)  the  organism  is  a  gram-­‐ nega*ve  rod,  and  (2)  the  organism  produces  a  red  pigment.  S.  marcescens  is  a  gram-­‐nega*ve   rod  that  produces  a  red  pigment  called  prodigiosin.   Answer  A  is  incorrect.  The  presence  of  Candida  albicans  in  an  otherwise  normal  female  usually   represents  coloniza*on  rather  than  infec*on.  UTI  with  Candida  usually  can  be  anributed  to   structural  abnormali*es,  metabolic  or  hormonal  abnormali*es.    Answer  B  is  incorrect.  Escherichia  coli  is  the  most  common  cause  of  UTI.  Although  it  is  a  gram-­‐ nega*ve  rod,  it  does  not  produce  any  pigments.     Answer  C  is  incorrect.  Klebsiella  pneumoniae  is  a  gram-­‐nega*ve  rod  and  is  responsible  for   approximately  8%  of  nosocomial  infec*ons.  It  is  a  significant  cause  of  UTI  and  pneumonia  in   hospitalized  and  ambulatory  pa*ents.  K.  pneumoniae  does  not  produce  any  pigments.     Answer  D  is  incorrect.  Proteus  mirabilis  is  a  gram-­‐nega*ve  bacillus  and  is  a  frequent  cause  of   nosocomial  UTI.  It  produces  the  enzyme  urease,  which  serves  to  create  a  more  alkaline   environment  for  itself  (urea  →  ammonia  +  carbon  dioxide)  but  does  not  produce  any  pigments.     Answer  E  is  incorrect.  Pseudomonas  aeruginosa  has  been  known  to  cause  catheter-­‐associated   UTI.  Although  it  is  a  gram-­‐nega*ve  rod,  it  produces  a  blue-­‐green  pigment  called  pyocyanin.     Answer  G  is  incorrect.  Staphylococcus  saprophy*cus  is  the  second  most  common  cause  of  UTI  in   young  women.  It  is  a  gram-­‐posi*ve  coccus  and  does  not  produce  any  pigments.   LE,  Tao,  Karen  A  ADLER  a  Seth  K  BECHIS  (eds.).  First  aid  Q&A  for  the  USMLE  Step  1.  2nd  ed.  New  York:  McGraw-­‐Hill  Medical,  c2009.  ISBN  978-­‐0-­‐07-­‐159794-­‐4   Q6:  A  20-­‐year-­‐old  woman  presents  with  a  2-­‐day  history   of  dysuria  and  increased  urinary  frequency.  She  states   that  she  was  recently  married  and  was  not  sexually   ac*ve  prior  to  the  marriage.  Physical  examina*on   reveals  a  temperature  of  38.2°C  with  normal  vital   signs.  Gynecologic  examina*on  reveals  no  evidence  of   discharge,  vagini*s,  or  cervici*s.  Urinalysis  reveals  14   white  blood  cells  per  high-­‐powered  field  with  many   gram-­‐nega*ve  rods.  Which  of  the  following  is  the  most   appropriate  pharmacotherapy?   (A)  Celriaxone   (B)  Fluconazole   (C)  Gentamicin   (D) Metronidazole   (E)  Trimethoprim-­‐sulfamethoxazole   USMLE  step  1  Qbook.  Seventh  edi*on.  New  York  :  Kaplan  Publishing,  2015.  ISBN:  978-­‐1625232632   The  correct  answer  is  E.  The  pa*ent’s  presenta*on  is  consistent  with  a  simple   urinary  tract  infec*on;  there  is  a  short  history  of  dysuria,  increased  urinary   frequency,  and  the  appearance  of  white  blood  cells  and  gram-­‐nega*ve  rods   in  the  urine.  Urinary  tract  infec*ons  are  common  in  women  aler  they   become  sexually  ac*ve.  The  infec*on  is  likely  caused  by  urethral  trauma   during  intercourse,  which  leads  to  bacterial  contamina*on  of  the  bladder.   Since  most  of  these  infec*ons  are  caused  by  Escherichia  coli  (a  gram-­‐ nega*ve  rod),  the  most  appropriate  therapy  would  be  trimethoprim-­‐ sulfamethoxazole  (TMP-­‐SMX)  for  around  3  days.   Celriaxone  (choice  A)  is  the  treatment  of  choice  for  uncomplicated  infec*ons   with  Neisseria  gonorrhoeae,  now  that  most  strains  are  resistant  to   penicillin.   Fluconazole  (choice  B)  is  indicated  for  the  treatment  of  vaginal  candidiasis.   Since  there  is  no  vaginal  discharge  and  the  pa*ent  has  gram  nega*ve  rods   in  the  urine,  a  diagnosis  of  vaginal  candidiasis  can  be  excluded.   Gentamicin  (choice  C)  would  be  an  inappropriate  choice.  Most  urinary   infec*ons  caused  by  gram-­‐nega*ve  rods  are  sensi*ve  to  TMP-­‐SMX,  and  the   poten*al  for  toxicity  secondary  to  gentamicin  is  great.     Metronidazole  (choice  E)  is  an  an*bio*c  typically  used  in  the  treatment  of   vaginal  Trichomonas  and  Gardnerelli  infec*ons,  as  well  as  serious  infec*ons   believed  to  be  caused  by  anaerobic  bacteria.  Since  there  is  no  vaginal   discharge  and  the  pa*ent  has  gram-­‐nega*ve  rods  in  the  urine,  this  is  not   the  best  choice  for  the  treatment.     Most  common  urinary  tract  infec*ons   bugs   •  Escherichia  coli   – leading  cause  of  UTI.  Collonies  show  green  metalic   sheen  on  EMB  agar.   •  Staphylococcus  saprophy8cus   – 2nd  leading  cause  of  UTI  in  sexually  ac*ve  women   •  Klebsiella  pneumoniae   – 3rd  leading  cause  of  UTI.  Large  mucoid  capsule  and   viscous  colonies   Tao  Le,  Vikas  Bhushan:  First  Aid  for  the  USMLE  Step  1  2014,  McGraw  Hill  Professional,   2014,  ISBN  0071831436.   Q7:  A  76-­‐year-­‐old  man  presents  to  his  physician  complaining   of  an  inability  to  empty  his  bladder  for  the  past  3  days  and   a  con*nual  leakage  of  urine  for  the  past  2  days.  A   cystometrogram  reveals  that  his  bladder  has  an   abnormally  large  capacity,  and  a  MRI  reveals  a  lesion   limited  to  the  sacral  spinal  cord.  Which  of  the  following  is   the  most  likely  diagnosis?   (A) Automa*c  neurogenic  bladder   (B)  Autonomous  neurogenic  bladder   (C)  Motor  neurogenic  bladder   (D) Sensory  neurogenic  bladder   (E)  Uninhibited  neurogenic  bladder   USMLE  step  1  Qbook.  Seventh  edi*on.  New  York  :  Kaplan  Publishing,  2015.  ISBN:  978-­‐1625232632   The  correct  answer  is  B.  This  pa*ent  has  an  autonomous   neurogenic  bladder,  which  is  a  type  of  “lower  motor   neuron”  bladder.  There  are  three  types  of  lower  motor   neuron  bladders:  an  autonomous  neurogenic  bladder   (lesion  to  the  sacral  spinal  cord  centers  involved  in  bladder   func*on),  a  motor  neurogenic  bladder  (choice  C;  lesion  of   motor  and  visceral  efferents  to  the  bladder),  and  a  sensory   neurogenic  bladder  (choice  D;  lesion  of  sensory  afferents   from  the  bladder).  All  these  condi*ons  are  associated  with  a   flaccid  bladder  that  fills  to  capacity.  Whereas  a  normal   bladder  typically  emp*es  at  300  mL,  these  bladder  fill  to   about  1000  mL.  These  pa*ents  have  overflow  incon*nence,   which  means  the  bladder  expands  completely.  Because  they   cannot  void,  these  pa*ents  dribble  urine.  These  are  the   most  dangerous  neurogenic  bladders,  because  urinary  stasis   predisposes  pa*ents  to  lower  urinary  tract  infec*ons,  which   may  ascend  to  the  kidneys,  producing  pyelonephri*s.   An  automa*c  neurogenic  bladder  (choice  A)  is  a  type  of  “upper   motor  neuron”  bladder.  This  condi*on  is  caused  by  a  lesion   that  disconnects  the  pon*ne  micturi*on  center  (the  center   that  is  responsible  for  producing  coordinated  voiding)  from   the  sacral  spinal  cord  centers.  The  bladder  is  s*ll  able  to  void   to  some  degree,  but  func*ons  “on  its  own”  without  input   from  the  brainstem  center.  As  a  result,  the  urethral  sphincter   does  not  relax  when  the  detrusor  muscle  contracts,  leading   to  urinary  reten*on.     An  uninhibited  neurogenic  bladder  (choice  E)  is  another  type  of   “upper  motor  neuron”  bladder.  Normal  adults  have  cor*cal   control  over  their  pon*ne  micturi*on  center,  but  when  the   cor*copon*ne  pathways  are  not  func*oning  properly,  the   pa*ent  develops  an  uninhibited  neurogenic  bladder.  In  these   pa*ents,  the  act  of  voiding  is  well  coordinated,  but  not  under   conscious  control.  This  is  seen  in  pa*ents  with  frontal  lobe   lesions  and  in  normal  children  prior  to  toilet  training.     Q8:  A  70-­‐year-­‐old  woman  presents  to  her  physician  prior  to   beginning  chemotherapy  for  newly  diagnosed  small  cell   lung  carcinoma.  her  examina*on  is  notable  for  obesity,   blood  pressure  of  180/110  mmHg,  facial  hair,  abdominal   striae,  and  an  acneiform  rash  on  her  chest  and  back.   Laboratory  values  are  normal  except  for  a  serum  glucose   of  250  mg/dL  (normal  range:  70  –  110  mg/dL).  Her  chest   x-­‐ray  film  shows  a  right  perihilar  mass  and  severe  diffuse   osteoporosis.  Which  of  the  following  most  likely   accounts  for  her  physical  examina*on,  laboratory,  and  x-­‐ ray  findings?   (A)  Adrenal  gland  destruc*on  by  metastases   (B)  Anterior  pituitary  gland  disrup*on  by  metastases   (C)  Ectopic  produc*on  of  cor*cotropin  (ACTH)   (D)  Ectopic  produc*on  of  gastrin   (E)  Ectopic  produc*on  of  parathyroid  hormone  (PTH)   USMLE  step  1  Qbook.  Seventh  edi*on.  New  York  :  Kaplan  Publishing,  2015.  ISBN:  978-­‐1625232632   The  correct  answer  is  C.  This  woman  has  all  the  classic  findings  of   Cushing  syndrome:  obesity,  hypertension,  hirsu*sm,  acne,   striae,  glucose  intolerance,  and  osteoporosis.  Cushing   syndrome  may  be  caused  by  excess  produc*on  of  cor*sol  due   to  bilateral  adrenal  hyperplasia  or  an  adrenal  neoplasm;  by   excess  produc*on  of  cor*cotropin  (ACTH)  by  a  pituitary   adenoma;  or  by  ectopic  produc*on  of  ACTH  by  a  tumor,  most   commonly  a  small  cell  lung  carcinoma  (major  clue  in  the   ques*on  stem!   Destruc*on  of  the  adrenal  glands  bilaterally  (choice  A)  or  of  the   anterior  pituitary  by  metastases  (choice  B)  would  cause  a   deficiency  of  cor*sol  and  ACTH,  respec*vely,  and  would  lead   to  a  syndrome  of  cor*sol  deficiency  with  ortosta*c   hypotension,  malaise,  nausea,  and  weight  loss.     Ectopic  produc*on  of  gastrin  (choice  D),  as  seen  in  Zollinger-­‐ Ellison  syndrome,  causes  severe  refractory  pep*c  ulcer   disease.     Ectopic  produc*on  of  parathyroid  hormone  (PTH;  choice  E),   which  can  be  seen  in  squamous  cell  lung  carcinoma,  would   result  in  hypercalcemia.   Taelr 9-8 Paraneoplastic Syndrome Endocrinopathies Cushing syndrome Gynecomastia Hypercalcemia Hypocalcemia Hypoglycemra Hyponatremia Secondary polycythemia Small cell carcinoma of lung, medullary carcinoma of thyroid, pancreatic cancer Choriocarcinoma (testis), semrnoma Renal cell carcinoma, primary squamous cell carcinoma of lung, breast carcinoma, adult T-cell leukemia/lymphoma Malignant lymphomas (contain 1 or-hydroxylase) Medullary carcjnoma of thyroid Hepatocellular carcinoma, ovarian carcinoma, fibrosarcoma Small cell carcinoma of lung Renal cell carcrnoma, hepatocellular carcinoma, cerebellar hemanqioma ACrH, Adrenocorticotropic hormone; hCG, human chorionic gonadotropin; prH, parathyroid hormone. Taelr 9-9 Tumor Markers and Associated Cancers ACTH hCG PTH-related protein Calcitriol (vitamjn D Calcitonin lnsulin-like factor Antidiuretic hormor Erythropoietin AFP Bence Jones protein cA 15-3 cA19-9 Hepatocellular carcinoma, yolk sac tumor (endodermal sinus tumor) of ovary or testis Multiple myeloma, waldenstrom macroglobulinemia (represent light chains rn urine) Breast cancer GOLJAN,  Edward  F.  Rapid  review  pathology.  Fourth  edi8on.  Philadelphia,  PA:  Elsevier/Saunders,  2014.  ISBN   03-­‐230-­‐8787-­‐6.   Q9:  A  35-­‐year-­‐old,  sexually  ac*ve  woman  visits  her   gynecologist  complaining  of  mild,  right-­‐sided,  lower   abdominal  pain  but  no  other  symptoms.  There  are   no  peritoneal  signs.  Her  surgical  history  is  significant   for  an  appendectomy  at  age  10.  Her  last  period   occurred  14  days  ago.  Which  of  the  following   endometrial  changes  corresponds  to  this  stage  of  the   pa*ent’s  menstrual  cycle?   (A) Apical  movement  of  secre*ons  in  the  glandular  cells   (B)  Degenera*on  of  the  glandular  structures   (C)  Glandular  glycogen  accumula*on  in  the  func*onalis   (D) Growth  of  the  spiral  arteries   (E)  Tissue  expansion  by  cellular  hypertrophy   USMLE  step  1  Qbook.  Seventh  edi*on.  New  York  :  Kaplan  Publishing,  2015.  ISBN:  978-­‐1625232632   The  correct  answer  is  D.  This  pa*ent  appears  to  be  experiencing   miXelschmerz,  abdominal  pain  occuring  at  the  *me  of  ovula*on  that  can   mimic  acute  appendici*s  (which  is  rule  out  because  of  the  pa*ent’s  surgical   history).  If  this  informa*on  didn’t  clue  you  into  the  stage  of  the  menstrual   cycle,  you  are  told  explicitly  that  the  pa*ent’s  last  menstrual  period  was  14   days  ago.  Therefore,  she  is  at  the  conclusion  of  the  prolifera*ve   (estrogenic)  phase.  This  stage  begins  during  the  laner  period  of  menstrual   flow  and  con*nues  through  the  thirteenth  to  fourteenth  day  of  typical  28-­‐ day-­‐cycle;  it  is  characterized  by  regrowth  of  the  endometrium.  The   epithelial  cells  of  the  glandular  structures  remaining  aler  menstrua*on   migrate  and  proliferate  to  cover  the  new  mucosal  surface.  Also,  the  spiral   arteries  grow  into  the  regenera*ng  endometrium  (this  process  con*nues   through  the  secretory  stage  as  well).  Significant  edema  develops  by  the  end   of  the  prolifera*ve  stage  and  con*nues  to  develop  during  the  secretory   phase.   Apical  movement  of  secretons  in  the  glandular  cells  (choice  A)  occurs  during   the  secretory  phase.   Degenera*on  of  the  glandular  structures  (choice  B)  occurs  during  the   premenstrual  stage  of  the  cycle.     Glandular  glycogen  accumula*on  in  the  func*onalis  (choice  C)  occurs  during   the  secretory  phase  (luteal  phase).   Tissue  expansion  by  cellular  hypertrophy  (choice  E)  occurs  during  the   secretory  phase  since  mitosis  of  the  endometrial  *ssue  has  ceased  at  this   point.     Q10:  A  29-­‐year-­‐old  woman  with  a  history  of  pelvic   inflammatory  disease  presents  to  the  emergency   department  with  severe  lel  quadrant  crampy  pain  and   spojng,  and  amenorrhea  for  the  past  two  cycles.   Physical  examina*on  reveals  a  lel  adnexal  mass  with   tenderness  to  palpa*on.  The  beta-­‐human  chorionic   gonadotropin  (hcG)  level  is  elevated.  Further  studies   would  most  likely  reveal  an  implanta*on  at  which  of  the   following  loca*ons  in  the  fallopian  tube?   (A) Ampulla   (B)  Fimbriae   (C)  Infundibulum   (D) Isthmus   (E)  Uterine  segment   USMLE  step  1  Qbook.  Seventh  edi*on.  New  York  :  Kaplan  Publishing,  2015.  ISBN:  978-­‐1625232632   The  correct  answer  is  A.  This  pa*ent  has  an  ectopic  (tubal)   pregnancy.  Pa*ents  with  a  history  of  pelvic  inflammatory  disease   are  more  suscep*ble  to  this  disorder.  The  ampulla  is  the  most   common  site  of  fer*liza*on  within  the  fallopian  tube,  as  well  as   the  most  common  site  for  tubal  pregnancy.  It  is  the  longest  region   of  the  tube  and  has  thin  walls.   The  fimbriae  (choice  B)  of  the  fallopian  tubes  are  highly  unlikely   loca*ons  for  tubal  pregnancy.  They  are  mucosal  ridges  located  at   the  funnel-­‐shaped  end  of  the  oviduct  that  are  covered  with   ciliated  cells.  They  beat  toward  the  mouth  of  the  tube,  “brushing”   the  ovum  released  from  the  ovary  into  the  fallopian  tube.   The  infundibulum  (choice  C)  is  the  technical  term  for  the  “funnel-­‐ shaped  end  of  the  fallopian  tube.”  it  opens  to  the  peritoneal   cavity.   The  isthmus  (choice  D)  is  the  narrow,  thick-­‐walled  segment  of  the   fallopian  tube  nearest  to  the  uterine  wall.   The  uterine  (inters**al)  segment  (choice  E)  is  the  por*on  of  the  tube   that  traverses  the  uterine  wall.  Ectopic  pregnancies  occurring  here   at  par*cularly  high  risk  for  catastrophic  rupture.   Anatomy  of  fallopian  tube     hnp://www.nccrm.com/wp-­‐content/uploads/2012/12/fallopian.png   Sources:   1.  LE,  Tao,  Karen  A  ADLER  a  Seth  K  BECHIS   (eds.).  First  aid  Q&A  for  the  USMLE  Step  1.   2nd  ed.  New  York:  McGraw-­‐Hill  Medical,   c2009.  ISBN  978-­‐0-­‐07-­‐159794-­‐4   2. USMLE  step  1  Qbook.  Seventh  edi*on.  New   York  :  Kaplan  Publishing,  2015.  ISBN:   978-­‐1625232632   If  you  have  any  ques*ons  don’t  hesitate  to   contact  us.     See  you  at  USMLE  @  Masaryk  J     Klára  Valešová  394587@mail.muni.cz     Šimon  Hajda  395098@mail.muni.cz